Tuesday, 12 May 2009

A plea for help!

Who was the first to state the doctrine of infallibility of scripture? (NT or OT)

I warning you now that if you quote 1 Tim 3:16 (or the like) at me and/or claim it was Paul then you will be in danger of being removed! And no Swithun it will not be funny.

Thanks as always!
Posted by at

4 comments:

  1. Kevin Jackson12 May 2009 at 17:33

    Don't know if this is the first, but here is one from Augistine of Hippo:

    "On such terms we might amuse ourselves without fear of offending each other in the field of Scripture, but I might well wonder if the amusement was not at my expense. For I confess to your Charity that I have learned to yield this respect and honour only to the canonical books of Scripture: of these alone do I most firmly believe that the authors were completely free from error. "

    Letter from Augustine to Jerome AD 405
    http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/1102082.htm

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  2. Kevin Jackson12 May 2009 at 17:36

    Here's another quote from the same letter:

    "I do not need to say that I do not suppose you to wish your books to be read like those of prophets or of apostles, concerning which it would be wrong to doubt that they are free from error."

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  3. Unknown13 May 2009 at 12:23

    Great Start, thanks Pizza man.
    I'd be intersted to see how this went down if it was the first!

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  4. Anonymous22 May 2009 at 09:47

    Excellent now I have some early church stuff to quote at the theology students at church! The joys.

    But what do we truely mean by Inerrent / infallible and should we class all translations as such and hold them all the same....

    now that is a different set of questions... obviously!

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